CS0-003 Detail Explanation - CS0-003 Practice Guide

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CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q68-Q73):

NEW QUESTION # 68
Due to reports of unauthorized activity that was occurring on the internal network, an analyst is performing a network discovery. The analyst runs an Nmap scan against a corporate network to evaluate which devices were operating in the environment. Given the following output:

Which of the following choices should the analyst look at first?

A. wh4dc-748gy.lan (192.168.86.152)
B. xlaptop.lan (192.168.86.249)
C. lan (192.168.86.22)
D. imaging.lan (192.168.86.150)
E. p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56)

Answer: E

Explanation:
The analyst should look at p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) first, as this is the most suspicious device on the network. P4wnP1 ALOA is a tool that can be used to create a malicious USB device that can perform various attacks, such as keystroke injection, network sniffing, man-in-the-middle, or backdoor creation. The presence of a device with this name on the network could indicate that an attacker has plugged in a malicious USB device to a system and gained access to the network. Official Reference: https://github.com/mame82/P4wnP1_aloa

NEW QUESTION # 69
A security analyst is validating a particular finding that was reported in a web application vulnerability scan to make sure it is not a false positive. The security analyst uses the snippet below:

Which of the following vulnerability types is the security analyst validating?

A. Directory traversal
B. XXE
C. SSRF
D. XSS

Answer: D

Explanation:
XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website.
XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application's processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official References:
https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe
https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf
https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.htm

NEW QUESTION # 70
SIMULATION
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company's distribution center. The company's hardening guidelines indicate the following:
- There must be one primary server or service per device.
- Only default ports should be used.
- Non-secure protocols should be disabled.
- The corporate Internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the tools available, discover devices on the corporate network and the services that are running on these devices.
You must determine:
- The IP address of each device.
- The primary server or service of each device.
- The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION # 71
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).

A. CVE details
B. POC availability
C. npm identifier
D. Missing KPI
E. loCs
F. Hostname

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond to potential threats or attacks on the servers. Reference: Server and Workstation Patch Management Policy, Section: Policy; Patch Management Policy: Why You Need One in 2024, Section: What is a patch management policy?

NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following is often used to keep the number of alerts to a manageable level when establishing a process to track and analyze violations?

A. Threshold value
B. Log retention
C. Log rotation
D. Maximum log size

Answer: A

Explanation:
A threshold value is a parameter that defines the minimum or maximum level of a metric or event that triggers an alert. For example, a threshold value can be set to alert when the number of failed login attempts exceeds
10 in an hour, or when the CPU usage drops below 20% for more than 15 minutes. By setting a threshold value, the process can filter out irrelevant or insignificant alerts and focus on the ones that indicate a potential problem or anomaly. A threshold value can help to reduce the noise and false positives in the alert system, and improve the efficiency and accuracy of the analysis12

NEW QUESTION # 73
......

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